Im no expert when it comes to these things, but isnt there an argument that suggests that the so called mouth-map is a myth? For example, check Wikipedia under "taste" which notes:
"Location of the stimulus on the tongue is not important, despite the common misperception of a "taste map" of sensitivity to different tastes thought to correspond to specific areas of the tongue . The "mouth map" is a myth, generally attributed to the mis-translation of a German text ... In reality, the separate populations of taste buds, sensing each of the basic tastes, are distributed across the tongue, though not entirely equally; for instance, the front of the mouth is biased toward sweetness and the rear toward bitterness."
Best wishes, Russell
Russell- there are differences between individuals. We all taste somewhat differently and can taste all tastes pretty much all over the tongue....However most tend to get their sensation of taste somewhat similarly to that of the more detailed 2nd link.Originally Posted by russellm link=1157200333/0#2 date=1157325437
The best thing is to make up some representative solutions (and do an acid- eg citric or mild acetic (vinegar)) and work out what your tongue does ;)